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Aptitude for Legal Studies – KLEE 2024 5-Year LLB

Click an option to check your answer, or click View Answer. Exam held on 18 August 2024 · Paper code 16/2024/OL.

99.

In the Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala judgment, the Supreme Court of India asserted its right

  1. A. to strike down amendments to the Constitution
  2. B. to strike down the appointment to the Constitutional posts
  3. C. to strike down the election conducted in a State
  4. D. to strike down the election of Chief Minister of a State

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.

100.

Who was the First Chief Justice of India ?

  1. A. Justice Harilal J.Kania
  2. B. Justice Saiyid Fazl Ali
  3. C. Justice M.Patanjali Sastri
  4. D. Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.

101.

An Advocate-on-Record of the Supreme Court of India is

  1. A. entitled to file an appearance or act for party in the Supreme Court
  2. B. allowed only in the constitutional matters
  3. C. allowed only in Writ Petitions
  4. D. allowed only in the criminal cases

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.

102.

Public Interest Litigation is a system through which

  1. A. an individual can file a Writ Petition only in theft matters
  2. B. an individual can file a Writ Petition only in his native district civil matters
  3. C. Indian citizen can move a Writ Petition in matters of the public interest
  4. D. an individual can file a Writ Petition only in personal civil matters

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.

103.

Number of High Courts in India is

  1. A. 25
  2. B. 30
  3. C. 22
  4. D. 28

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.

104.

Lok Adalats is an alternative dispute redressal mechanism to arrive at amicable settlement of disputes

  1. A. on the same day of arguments of the case in the court
  2. B. on the same day of markings of document in the court
  3. C. within one month time before the Court
  4. D. outside of Court

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.

105.

The Central Administrative Tribunal was established under

  1. A. Article 123 of the constitution of India
  2. B. Article 223 of the constitution of India
  3. C. Article 23-A of the constitution of India
  4. D. Article 323-A of the constitution of India

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.

106.

The decision of the Central Administrative Tribunal could be challenged

  1. A. by way of Writ Petition before respective High Court
  2. B. by way of Writ Petition before Supreme Court
  3. C. by way of Writ Petition before Principal Bench of the CAT
  4. D. by way of Petition before Union Law Ministry

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.

107.

DRT stands for

  1. A. Debentures Recovery Tribunals
  2. B. Debts Recovery Tribunals
  3. C. Demands Recovery Tribunals
  4. D. Deposits Restore Tribunals

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.

108.

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

Statements :

1. Writs are written orders issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts

2. A writ of Mandamus is a Court order that commands a government official to perform an act or to refrain from performing an act

  1. A. Only (1) is true
  2. B. Only (2) is true
  3. C. Both (1) and (2) are true
  4. D. Both (1) and (2) are false

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

No explanation is given for this question.